On Wed, Oct 6, 2010 at 11:40 PM, Christopher Jew wrote: > Lipitz critics neo-conservatives in their view of history by noting a bias > towards a “certain kind of experience - white male upper - class experience” > but is it even possible to have a history without a bias towards a culture? > Even if the history does not have a bias towards a specific cultural or > ethnic group, would the history still be influenced by one of the other > cultures, i.e. high culture or popular culture? Can history exist without > culture as a framework through which to interpret it? >